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101. The safety production guideline is ( ). (A) Safety must be ensured in production. (B) Everyone is responsible for safe production. (C) Safety first, prevention foremost. (D) Implement the safety production responsibility system. Answer: C 102. The color of the casing for the oxygen pressure gauge is ( ). (A) White (B) Yellow (C) Brown (D) Sky blue. Answer: D. 103. The color of the casing of an acetylene pressure gauge is ( ). (A) White (B) Yellow (C) Brown (D) Sky blue. Answer: A. 104. Among safety colors, yellow represents ( ). (A) Prohibit (B) Indicate (C) Warn (D) Command Answer: C 105. When an electrical appliance is on fire, one should not use ( ) to put out the fire. (A) Dry powder fire extinguisher (B) Foam fire extinguisher (C) Carbon dioxide fire extinguisher (D) 1211 fire extinguisher. Answer: B. 106. When using a foam fire extinguisher to combat liquid fires, the foam should be sprayed at ( ). (A) Liquid surface (B) Above the combustion zone (C) Around the fire point (D) Near the fire point. Answer: B. 107. The core temperature of a cigarette butt can reach (), which is higher than the ignition points of combustible materials such as cotton, linen, woolen fabrics, paper, and furniture; discarding cigarette butts carelessly can easily lead to fires. (A) 100–200°C (B) 400–500°C (C) 700–800°C (D) 800–1000°C Answer: C. 108. According to the \"Regulations on Electrical Safety in Explosive Atmospheres of the People’s Republic of China\", explosive substances are classified into three categories; explosive gases belong to which category? (A)Ⅰ (B)Ⅱ (C)Ⅲ (D)Ⅰ、Ⅱ Answer: B 109. In our country, hazardous explosive areas are classified into two categories. Places where flammable gases form explosive mixtures with air are classified as Category 1 sites, which are further divided into Grades 0, 1, and 2. The basis for grading is ( ). (A) Frequency of occurrence of explosive substances (B) Duration of presence of explosive substances (C) Degree of danger posed by explosive substances (D) All of the above. Answer: D. 110. The explosion-proof marking for intrinsically safe electrical equipment used in Zone 0 is ( ). (A)d (B)e (C)ia (D)p Answer: C 111. Working at height refers to carrying out work in locations where there is a risk of falling from a height of （） meters or more above the reference level. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5 Answer: B. 112. Lighting used for working in confined spaces should operate at a safe voltage, with properly insulated wires. When working in particularly humid areas and confined metal spaces, the voltage of the lights should be below ( ) V. (A)3 (B)9 (C)12 (D)24 Answer: C 113. All pits, wells, pre-existing openings, ditches, and trenches at the construction site must be protected with reliable measures. When using warning ropes for protection, the ropes must be placed at a distance of not less than ( ) meters from the work area. (A)1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D)5 Answer: D 114. Equipment accidents that occur due to violations of operating procedures, leaving the work post without permission, overloading the equipment, unreasonable processing methods, or poor maintenance fall under ( ). (A) Liability accident (B) Mechanical accident (C) Natural accident (D) Major accident Answer: A 115. When a team’s production capacity depends on the number of employees, the production capacity should be calculated based on ( ). (A) Production equipment (B) Production area (C) Man-hours (D) Volume of work. Answer: C. 116. The PDCA cycle is a type of process approach in quality management systems, and it enables organizations to maintain the ability for continuous improvement. Where P represents ( ). (A) Planning (B) Implementation (C) Inspection (D) Improvement Answer: A 117. The QHSE management system is a modern management method widely adopted in the international oil industry today. The meaning of E in this context is ( ). (A) Health (B) Safety (C) Environment (D) Quality. Answer: B. 118. The explosion protection category and grade of electrical equipment with the explosion protection mark ExdⅡBT4 are ( ). (A) Class II, Grade B (B) Class d, Grade II (C) Class B, Grade T4 (D) None of the above. Answer: A. 119. Which type of tool should not be used for knocking in flammable and explosive areas? ( ) (A) Wooden hammer (B) Rubber hammer (C) Copper hammer (D) Steel hammer. Answer: D. 120. In environments with low oxygen levels, in areas where high-concentration toxic gases are present, and in areas with asphyxiating gases, ( ) should be used. (A) Filter-type gas mask (B) Long-tube gas mask (C) Positive-pressure air respirator (D) Isolated gas mask (protective suit) Answer: C 121. If the temperature measured by the thermal resistor is low, which of the following factors is least likely to be the cause? (A) Metal shavings or dust inside the protective tube (B) Dust accumulation between the terminals (C) Poor contact of the lead wires (D) Short circuit in the thermal resistor Answer: C 122. When calibrating an electric target flow meter using the weight-hanging method, what should the instrument’s output be when no weights are placed on the target? (A) 4mA (B) 20mA (C) 12mA (D) 8mA Answer: A 123. The appropriate operating range for a pressure gauge is generally between 1/3 and 2/3 of its full scale; if it exceeds 2/3, then (A) there will be leaks at the joints or welds (B) dust will accumulate between the terminals (C) the spring tube cannot withstand the pressure (D) the accuracy will decrease over time Answer: D 124. To calibrate a transmitter, at least ( ) points must be selected as standard values for calibration. (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7 Answer: C 125. To understand the degree of automation of a device, one must first be familiar with ( ). (A) Control flow diagrams (B) Electrical schematic diagrams (C) Installation wiring diagrams (D) Ladder diagrams Answer: C 126. The measures taken to prevent explosions in instruments are ( ). (A) Flammable gases (B) Explosion range (C) Ignition sources (D) All of the above conditions occurring simultaneously Answer: D 127. In the control of the outlet temperature of a heating furnace, fluctuations in the pressure of the fuel gas cause changes in the furnace temperature, which in turn affects the outlet temperature. In the design of a cascade control system, ( ) should be selected as the negative variable. (A) Furnace outlet temperature (B) Furnace chamber temperature (C) Fuel gas pressure (D) Raw material temperature. Answer: A. 128. Which instrument is suitable for measuring the flow rate of dirty fluids? (A) Elliptical gear flow meter (B) Vortex flow meter (C) Scraper flow meter (D) Target flow meter. Answer: C. 129. Which of the following could cause the interlock system to malfunction? (A) Fluctuations in process parameters (B) Interlock shutdown (C) Failure of one of the detection elements in the \"three-out-of-two\" detection circuit (D) Failure of solenoid valves. Answer: D. 130. The double-acting slide valve installed on the flue gas pipeline in a catalytic cracking unit serves to regulate the pressure of ( ). (A) Regenerator (B) Settler (C) Reactor (D) Flue gas fan inlet Answer: A 131. The HONEYWELL series of intelligent transmitters use ( ) communication protocol. (A) D/E (B) HART (C) IP/TCP (D) FF Answer: A 132. The Rosemount series of transmitters use a （ ）operator to communicate with the equipment. (A) HART (B) SFC (C) BT200 (D) FF Answer: A 133. When calibrating an intelligent transmitter using a handheld device, a resistor of ( ) ohms is connected in series in the circuit. (A) 360 (B) 100 (C) 250 (D) 500 Answer: C 134. The Rosemount 3051C transmitter uses a （ ） type sensor. (A) Silicon capacitor (B) Diffused silicon (C) Silicon resonance (D) Silicon microcapacitor Answer: A 135. Smart transmitters do not have the （ ） function. (A) A/D conversion (B) Linearization (C) Parameter self-tuning (D) Self-diagnosis Answer: C 136. The two communication cables of a handheld communicator that do not have positive and negative poles are (). (A) HART (B) SFC (C) FLUKE (D) BT200 Answer: A 137. When a cascade control system is put into operation, which circuit should be activated first? (A) The main circuit (B) The secondary circuit (C) The disturbance channel (D) The feedforward channel Answer: B 138. When an automatic control system is started up for the first time, which component should be activated first? (A) Automatic (B) Manual (C) Cascade (D) Program-controlled. Answer: B. 139. What is used to detect the position of the cylinder in the polypropylene powder packaging line? ( ) (A) Photoelectric switch (B) Pressure switch (C) Magnetic reed switch (D) Proximity switch. Answer: C. 140. What type of switch is used for limiting the movement of the large hose crawler? ( ) (A) Photoelectric switch (B) Pressure switch (C) Travel switch (D) Proximity switch. Answer: C. 141. What is the validity period of a first-level fire operation permit? ( ) hours. (A) 8 (B) 24 (C) 72. 142. To ( ), good ventilation is necessary in areas where flammable liquids are stored and used. (A) Prevent the accumulation of flammable gases that could lead to explosions and fires. (B) Cool flammable liquids. (C) Maintain the quality of flammable liquids. Answer: A 143. When current flows into the ground at a grounding point, it creates a voltage drop in the soil surrounding that grounding point. The voltage that appears between a person’s feet around the grounding point is called ( ). (A) Step voltage (B) Step potential (C) Critical voltage Answer: A 144. The pressure used for the boiler’s hydrostatic test should be （） the boiler’s operating pressure. (A) Below (B) Equal to (C) Above Answer: C 145. A diffusion-type gas detector is installed on the ceiling inside a building; the gas that it can detect is likely to be ( ). (A) Chlorine (B) Gas (C) Hydrogen (D) Hydrogen sulfide Answer: C 146. In China’s health standards, the maximum allowable unit for measuring the concentration of toxic gases is ( ). (A) PPM (B) mg/m3 (C) Volume fraction (D) Mass fraction Answer: B 147. A palladium oxide analyzer can function properly at which of the following temperatures? (A) Below 600°C (B) 600–850°C (C) Above 1000°C (D) 850–1000°C Answer: B 148. What is the supply voltage for the detection probe of a combustible gas alarm? (A) 24VDC (B) 12VDC (C) 220VAC (D) 380VAC Answer: A 149. Which of the following signals is the output signal from a combustible gas alarm probe? (A) 0–10mADC (B) 4–20mADC (C) 1–5VDC (D) 0–20mADC Answer: B 150. Typically, a H2S alarm has a detection range of 0–100PPM, with an output of 4–20mA; if the displayed value is 20ppm, then the output current is ( ). (A) 5mA (B) 7.2mA (C) 8mA (D) 12mA Answer: B 151. The gas used to calibrate the zero point of analytical instruments is usually high-purity ( ). (A) Hydrogen (B) Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Carbon monoxide Answer: B 152. In the following abbreviations, what is commonly used to represent analog input and output signals? (A) AI, AO (B) DI, DO (C) MI, MO (D) PI, PO Answer: A 153、The key used to display the detailed information of process points in Honeywell’s TPS system is ( ). (A) GROUP (B) TREND (C) SCHEM (D) DETAIL Answer: D 154、The key used to view the trends of process points in Honeywell’s TPS system is ( ). (A) GROUP (B) TREND (C) SCHEM (D) DETAIL Answer: B 155. The call key for the flowchart in Honeywell’s TPS system is ( ). (A) GROUP (B) TREND (C) SCHEM (D) DETAIL Answer: C 156. The LCN network of Honeywell’s TPS system uses （ ） as the network transmission medium. (A) 50℃ coaxial cable (B) 75℃ broadband coaxial cable (C) unshielded twisted pair (D) shielded twisted pair. Answer: B. 157. The storage module for the historical data, application software, and system software of HONEYWELL’s TPS system is (). (A) NIM (B) HG (C) HM (D) HPM Answer: C 158. The interface between the LCN network and the UCN network in Honeywell’s TPS system is (), and it functions as a module on both the LCN network and the UCN network. (A) NIM (B) HG (C) HM (D) HPM Answer: A 159. The English abbreviation for the intelligent transmitter interface card of Honeywell’s TPS system is ( ). (A) HLAI (B) LLMUX (C) STIM (D) SI Answer: C 160. The HLAI high-level analog input card of HONEYWELL’s TPS system can receive and process signals such as ( ). (A) mV signals (B) 4–20mA or 1–5V signals (C) frequency signals (D) digital signals Answer: B 161. Which of the following parameters indicates that a point is in an active state? (A) ENABLE (B) DISABLE (C) ACTIVE (D) INACTIVE Answer: C 162. The accuracy of ordinary instruments is determined by ( ). (A) Static error (B) Dynamic error (C) Static characteristics (D) Dynamic characteristics Answer: A 163. For an open-top tank with a height of 10 meters, the pressure at the bottom of the tank when it is full is ( ) MPa. (A) 0.98 (B) 0.098 (C) 1 (D) 0.1 Answer: B 164. The density of a fluid is related to pressure; as pressure increases, the density will ( ). (A) Increase (B) Remain unchanged (C) Decrease (D) Uncertain Answer: A 165. Level refers to ( ). (A) Liquid level (B) Material level (C) Interface level (D) All of the above. Answer: D. 166. When using the differential pressure method to measure the liquid level in a container, the height of the liquid level depends on ( ). (A) Pressure difference and container cross-section (B) Pressure difference and medium density (C) Pressure difference, container cross-section, and medium density (D) Pressure difference, medium density, and location of the pressure measurement point. Answer: D. 167. When using a double-flange level gauge to measure the liquid level in a container, both the zero point and range of the gauge have been calibrated. Later, due to maintenance needs, the gauge was installed at a higher position; as a result, the level gauge ( ). (A) Zero point rises, range remains unchanged. (B) Zero point drops, range remains unchanged. (C) Zero point remains unchanged, range increases. (D) Neither the zero point nor the range changes. Answer: D. 168. When using a single-flange level gauge to measure the level in an open container, and after the gauge has been calibrated, it is moved downward by a certain distance due to maintenance needs, then what will be the indication of the gauge? (A) Unchanged (B) Rising (C) Falling (D) Indeterminable Answer: B 169. A constant buoyancy level gauge measures the liquid level based on the change in （ ） as the liquid level changes. (A) Position of the float (buoy, marker). (B) Buoyancy of the buoy. (C) Buoyancy of the float. (D) Position of the buoy. Answer: A. 170. A variable-buoyancy level gauge measures the liquid level based on the change in （） as the liquid level changes. (A) The position of the float (buoy, marker). (B) The buoyancy of the float tank. (C) The buoyancy of the float. (D) The position of the float tank. Answer: B 171. The range of a float level gauge is determined by ( ). (A) Length of the buoy (B) Volume of the buoy (C) Density of the medium (D) Location where the pressure tap is installed. Answer: A. 172. Flow rate refers to ( ). (A) The amount of fluid that passes through a certain cross-section of a pipe per unit of time. (B) The amount of fluid that passes through a certain section of a pipe per unit of time. (C) The amount of fluid that passes through a certain cross-section of a pipe over a certain period of time. (D) The amount of fluid that passes through a certain section of a pipe over a certain period of time. Answer: B. 173. In a pipe, the fluid velocity is generally highest at ( ). (A) Upper part of the pipe (B) Lower part of the pipe (C) Centerline of the pipe (D) Pipe wall Answer: C 174. Which of the following throttling devices requires calibration before it can be used? (A) Standard orifice plate (B) Standard nozzle (C) Venturi tube (D) Elliptical orifice plate. Answer: D. 175. Throttling orifice plates generally require certain specifications for the straight sections before and after them; which of the following answers is correct? (A) 10D before and 5D after (B) 10D before and 3D after (C) 5D before and 3D after (D) 8D before and 5D after Answer: A 176. The common methods for taking pressure readings from throttle devices include ( ). (A) Corner tapping and radial distance tapping (B) Flange tapping and radial distance tapping (C) Theoretical tapping and pipe connection tapping (D) Corner tapping and flange tapping Answer: D 177. When the balance valve in a three-valve assembly leaks, the differential pressure transmitter indicates ( ). (A) Low (B) High (C) Unchanged (D) Unable to determine Answer: A 178. If the positive pressure valve of the three-valve assembly is blocked while the negative pressure valve is unobstructed, then the differential pressure gauge will indicate ( ). (A) High (B) Low (C) Below zero (D) At maximum. Answer: C. 179. The startup of a three-valve assembly involves the following three steps; therefore, the most reasonable order of startup is ( ). (1) Open the positive pressure valve. (2) Close the balance valve. (3) Open the negative pressure valve. (A) (1)(2)(3) (B) (3)(2)(1) (C) (2)(1)(3) (D) (1)(3)(2) Answer: A. 180. A target flow meter operates based on the principle of (). (A) Throttling conversion (B) Dynamic balance (C) Fluid resistance-based conversion (D) Displacement balance. Answer: C. 181. When fluid flows through a target flow meter, there is a force exerted on the target plate; the relationship between the magnitude of this force and the fluid flow velocity is ( ). (A) Linear relationship (B) Square root relationship (C) Square relationship (D) Cannot be determined. Answer: B. 182. As the flow rate increases, the force acting on the target of a target flow meter will ( ). Larger (B) Smaller (C) No difference (D) Cannot be determined. Answer: A. 183. Currently, what are the types of temperature scales used internationally? (A) Celsius scale (B) Celsius scale, Fahrenheit scale (C) Celsius scale, Fahrenheit scale, thermodynamic scale (D) Celsius scale, Fahrenheit scale, thermodynamic scale, International Practical Temperature Scale. Answer: D. 184. The thermoelectric properties of a thermocouple are determined by ( ). (A) Material of the thermocouple (B) Thickness of the thermocouple (C) Length of the thermocouple (D) Chemical composition and physical properties of the thermoelectric material. Answer: D 185. The output voltage of a thermocouple is related to ( ). (A) Temperatures at both ends of the thermocouple (B) Temperature at the hot end of the thermocouple (C) Temperatures at both ends of the thermocouple and electrode material (D) Temperatures at both ends of the thermocouple, electrode material, and length. Answer: C 186. The magnitude of the thermoelectric potential of a thermocouple is related to ( ). (A) The materials making up the thermocouple (B) The thickness of the thermocouple wire (C) The materials making up the thermocouple and the temperatures at its ends (D) The length of the thermocouple wire. Answer: C 187. The condition for a thermocouple to generate a thermoelectric potential is ( ). (A) The materials of the two thermoelectric electrodes are different, and the temperatures at the two junctions are also different. (B) The materials of the two thermoelectric electrodes are different, but the temperatures at the two junctions are the same. (C) The temperatures at the two junctions are different, but the materials of the two thermoelectric electrodes are the same. (D) None of the above. Answer: A. 188. In a thermocouple temperature measurement circuit, if the temperatures at both ends of the display instrument and the connecting wires are the same, then the total potential of the thermocouple when it is connected is (). (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remain unchanged (D) Cannot be determined Answer: C 189. As shown in the figure, the indications of table A and table B are ( ). (A) The value indicated in Table A is greater than the value indicated in Table B. (B) The value indicated in Table A is equal to the value indicated in Table B. (C) The value indicated in Table A is less than the value indicated in Table B. (D) It is impossible to make a comparison. Answer: B. 190. The methods for temperature compensation of thermocouples include ( ). (A) Two methods: the compensation wire method and the cold junction temperature correction method. (B) Two methods: the compensation wire method and the ice melting method. (C) Four methods: the compensation wire method, the cold junction temperature correction method, the ice melting method, and the compensation bridge method. (D) Three methods: the compensation wire method, the cold junction temperature correction method, and the ice melting method. Answer: C. 191. A K-type thermocouple is made of ( ). (A) Made of nickel-chromium and nickel-silicon materials, with the negative electrode being nickel-silicon. (B) Made of nickel-chromium and nickel-aluminum materials, with the negative electrode being nickel-aluminum. (C) Made of nickel-chromium and nickel-copper materials, with the negative electrode being nickel-copper. (D) Made of copper and copper-nickel materials, with the negative electrode being copper-nickel. Answer: A. When the 192, 1151 differential pressure transmitter is used at its maximum calibration range, the maximum negative drift is （） of that range. (A) 300% (B) 200% (C) 500% (D) 100% Answer: D 193. The measurement range of the 1151 differential pressure transmitter is determined by ( ). (A) Measure the thickness of the diaphragm. (B) Determine the material of the diaphragm. (C) Measure the diameter of the diaphragm. (D) Assess the shape of the diaphragm. Answer: A. 194. The accuracy of Honeywell ST3000/900 series fully intelligent analog transmitters is ( ). (A) ±0.075% (B) ±0.02% (C) ±0.05% (D) ±0.1% Answer: D 195. Control systems are classified according to their basic structural forms as ( ). (A) Simple control systems, complex control systems (B) Fixed-value control systems, follow-up control systems (C) Closed-loop control systems, open-loop control systems (D) Continuous control systems, discrete control systems Answer: C 196. In automatic control, what is required of the transition process of an automatic control system is ( ). (A) A slow process of change (B) A process of divergent oscillation (C) A process of oscillation with constant amplitude (D) A stable process of decaying oscillation. Answer: D. 197. The quality of a transition process is primarily evaluated based on ( ) indicators. (A) Stability (B) Accuracy (C) Speed (D) Stability, accuracy, speed. Answer: D. 198. As long as a deviation exists, integral control operates until that deviation disappears. (A) Measured value (B) Deviation (C) Residual error (D) Change amount. Answer: C. 199. In a pneumatic diaphragm actuator, when the signal pressure increases, which component moves downward? (A) Direct-acting actuator (B) Reverse-acting actuator (C) Direct-acting air-open valve (D) Direct-acting air-close valve Answer: A 200. For a pneumatic control valve, when the signal increases and the valve stem moves upward, the flow area between the valve core and the valve seat decreases in which case? (A) Direct-acting air shut-off valve (B) Direct-acting air open valve (C) Reverse-acting air shut-off valve (D) Reverse-acting air open valve Answer: C