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Simple inverse Laplace transform problems

2011-03-06View Original

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This post was last edited by jacob451 on 2011-3-10 at 11:20. According to the results in the book, the time-domain solution of X(s) = K*M/(tao*s+1)/s is x(t) = K*M*(1-exp(-t/tao)). When using MATLAB to compute it, the result obtained is K*M - (K*M)/exp(t/tao). Why is the sign of the exponent different between the two? I hope those who understand can explain this to me; I’m just starting to learn control systems.
Reply #22011-03-06
exp(-x) = 1/exp(x), right?
Reply #32011-03-10
What does the original poster mean? I don’t understand; I’m just starting to learn *control

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