Why does a simply supported beam fixed at both ends experience the greatest deformation in the middle when subjected to loads? !
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The middle section has the maximum bending moment and the greatest deformation. But why is the bending moment greatest in the middle part?
It can be understood that the torque applied at the middle is the greatest.
Do you understand 【remaining unyielding under great pressure】?
Please take a look at Figure 3 on page 85 of NB/T 47042-2014 \"Horizontal Vessels\":
This is a theoretical issue that cannot be explained by ordinary domestic standards.
It should be understood as a beam with one end fixed and the other end hinged; the mechanical principle formula is 1/8ql2
If both ends are fixed ends, it is a rigid connection, and the bending moment is not necessarily at its maximum in the middle
For a uniformly distributed load, it is still in the middle.
I’m drunk; this should be a purely mechanical issue!
This post was last edited by wanlirn on 2017-8-22 at 11:08. “It’s a theoretical issue that cannot be explained by ordinary domestic standards.” “ Bending moment is the product of force and the lever arm; it can be determined through a force analysis. Physical problems can indeed be explained using mathematics. The original poster should not follow pseudoscientific views – physical problems should only be explained using the principles of physics. If one really doesn’t understand, then one should read Poincaré’s “Science and Hypothesis”